22 Dec 08 What legal backing does a resturant have to mail a fine to someone?

James | 25 Dec 2008 10:04 am
Absolutely none.
Brooke22365 | 28 Dec 2008 9:21 am
How would they know their address?
Thomas T | 30 Dec 2008 10:54 am
It does not make any sense that a private business could “fine” anyone for allegedly breaking the law. That proposition is wrong for many reasons including the presumption of innocence, lack of due process, usurpation of the authority of the judiciary, failure to consider a person’s rights under both state and federal constitutions, etc. I would think that the individual who would receive such a fine could have an “abuse of process” case against the establishment.
Bonkers! | 01 Jan 2009 6:35 am
They cannot fine anyone unless the person being fined signed a contract stating that if they stayed past when they were asked to leave, they agreed to pay a fine. Obviously no one would do this.

They could be arrested if they do not leave the property, but that is done by the state.

If the restuarant could prove that they lost business because of it, they could sue the person, but again, that is not a fine.

I agree with the answerer above. How would a restuarant know the address of a person so that they could send the fine?
absent farmer | 01 Jan 2009 1:36 pm
That is hilarious and quite ridiculous for them to think you would have to pay something like that.